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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 27.06.2025 20:16

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why is there a "double standard" applied to sex between a dog and a human? Why is it that to many who are at least mildly okay with bestiality, a WOMAN having sex with a male dog is fine, but a guy with a female dog is not?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.